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Two-color ball fraud
The state has set up this legal gambling place, and the prizes among the lottery players are all their own money. The state will take away 50% of the bonus, and the rest is the returned bonus. Therefore, only when the country satisfies fairness and justice to the greatest extent will it have the greatest benefits, and it will not take such a big risk for hundreds of millions in a certain period.
If you have studied probability theory and mathematical statistics, you will know that any kind of lottery is designed according to probability. Theoretically, the probability of all permutations and combinations is the same, that is, the people who buy any bet are the same in theory, which will inevitably lead to fewer people winning the first prize, more people winning the second prize, more people winning the third prize, and so on.
I have a question about the answer upstairs, that is, if you say that you won the first prize of 1 0,000, then you need to bet1.70-1.800 million in probability to achieve it (because in probability, the probability of each number is the same, and a * * is/kloc-.
This is your concept of stealing, because we already know that one person made 88 bets in this period, 93-88=5, which is equivalent to 6 people, and sold 200 million in one period, which is 65.438+0 billion bets, 65.438+0 billion/65.438+0.7 million =5.8, which meets the probability condition.
Of course, you can also say that a person bought a bet of 1000, and this special case will happen, but the probability is very small.
My point is, just because someone won 88 bets in this issue cannot prove that Fucai cheated.
No one can say for sure how likely this is. Bulgaria not long ago? Or lottery tickets don't issue the same set of numbers for two consecutive periods! Therefore, whether the numbers are connected or not is not a sufficient condition for cheating.
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