Ask a math problem in senior one,

I didn't read what was said on the Internet. I just said my opinion:

It is obviously a correct proposition that the number field is a limited set. Assuming that the number set contains A and B (A and B are not equal), let's say that A is not equal to and belongs to the number field

According to the meaning of the question, we know that a-a=, belongs to the changed set A/A = 1, and 1 is the set (this sum proves.

we know that a+a=2a belongs to a set of numbers, and a+2a=3a belongs to a set of numbers. By analogy, we know that n*a belongs to a set of variables, n belongs to an integer, and the integer is infinite. Naturally, the set of numbers is infinite. When the number field is infinite, it is obvious that there is almost no need to prove it