Query on the calculation formula of working capital loan demand in the Measures for the Administration of Working Capital Loan

Self-owned funds = current assets-current liabilities

This answer is correct. If there is a loophole, it is the current assets minus a sum of other receivables.

That is to say, current assets are the working capital of an enterprise (other receivables and the like can be deducted and do not participate in business activities), while the self-owned funds of an enterprise are current assets-current liabilities, and the funds without liabilities are of course their own working capital.

This, in the calculation of Bank of China, accurately reflects that many small banks have produced world-class demand errors because they regard their own funds as their own cash. This is a joke. I wonder how the CBRC will investigate them in the future.

In fact, the real source of this calculation formula issued by CBRC is to learn from the management of China Bank.

In this method, the real doubts are: the value of the sales profit rate, the Bank of China takes the sales income-sales cost, the profits obtained, and some small banks take the total profits. Although it does not violate the wording of the CBRC's' sales profit rate', it does not conform to the calculation of enterprise procurement costs.

I just said that everything is under discussion, and the standard is not to let the CBRC find out the problem, otherwise it will be fined. The method is very good and there are many countermeasures, haha. . .