Why were the trade and diplomatic demands put forward by the Opium War powers rejected by China? Why is it an unequal requirement?

China has been a highly centralized country since ancient times. Since the Ming dynasty, in order to better control the people, the emperor ordered strict control of all non-governmental exchanges with the outside world. If the Qing government agreed to the trade requirements of the great powers, it would probably make the domestic people flee or collude with foreigners to oppose the government. In addition, if people communicate too closely with foreign countries, it is likely that there will be some trends that are inconsistent with the mainstream opinions of the government. In order to consolidate its rule, the government has to refuse all opportunities to communicate with the outside world.

In diplomacy, China has always regarded itself as China, and neighboring countries have either bowed to their knees or been completely annihilated. Especially since the early years of the Qing Dynasty, the unified policy wiped out all unwilling neighbors of China during the Qianlong period. Naturally, I have developed the habit of self-sufficiency and neglecting equal communication with foreign countries. The diplomatic rules of equal consultation and mutual sacrifice emphasized by western countries were not accepted by the Qing government. Therefore, it is impossible for the Qing Dynasty to agree to foreign trade.

However, the Opium War did end in the defeat of the Qing Dynasty, and it is very common for foreign defeated countries to agree with the victorious countries to strengthen trade. The Qing dynasty, accustomed to the closed door, naturally felt offended by Tianwei. In addition, at that time, Britain did put forward some conditions that China thought were outrageous (such as opening port cities-indirectly increasing national contacts with foreign countries and threatening feudal rule), so it was naturally called unequal requirements.