Comprehensive knowledge preparation questions for the Nursing Examination

1. The four basic concepts of nursing refer to (D)

A. Prevention, treatment, nursing, environment B. Patient, health, society, nursing C. Human , environment, health, prevention D, people, environment, health, nursing E, patient, prevention, treatment, nursing

Analysis: Modern nursing mainly describes the four concepts of people, environment, health, and nursing , they are the 4 basic concepts of nursing.

2. Which of the following statements about adaptive characteristics is incorrect (D)

A. Adaptation has a certain limit B. Adaptation itself is also stressful C. Response The more sudden the stressor comes, the more difficult it is for the individual to adapt. D. Facing the stressor, the body can only make one level of adaptation. E. Adaptation is a characteristic that distinguishes living organisms from inanimate substances.

Analysis : Adaptation has certain limits. For example, people cannot tolerate heat and cold without limit. Therefore option A is correct. Adaptation itself is also stressful. For example, patients with colon cancer need to install an artificial anus after colectomy. This treatment method is a manifestation of the body's adaptation to the stress source of colon cancer, but this adaptation itself can bring another problem to the patient. One stressor is that patients need to learn how to take care of their artificial anus by themselves. Therefore, adaptation itself is also stressful. Therefore option B is also correct. Time is also closely related to adaptation. The more sudden the stressor comes, the more difficult it is for the individual to adapt. On the contrary, the more sufficient time, the more likely the individual is to mobilize more coping resources to resist the stressor, and the better the adaptation. For example, acute bleeding is more likely to cause shock than chronic blood loss, and family members of patients who die from a long illness are more likely to adjust to the grief of losing a loved one than family members of patients who die in an accident. Therefore option C is also correct. When faced with stressors, the body will make adaptations at multiple levels, including the physiological level, the psychological level, the social and cultural level, and the knowledge and technology level. It is not limited to one level of adaptation. Therefore option D is incorrect. Adaptation is one of the characteristics that distinguishes living organisms from non-living organisms. It is the most basic characteristic for any living thing to survive and develop in the environment, so option E is correct. Therefore, the answer to this question is D.

3. Which of the following forms of communication is not non-verbal communication (E)

A. Facial expression B. Gesture C. Body movement D. Body Posture E, health education materials

Analysis: Non-verbal communication refers to communication without the use of language. Therefore, facial expressions, gestures, body movements, and body postures are all types of nonverbal communication. Verbal communication refers to communication in language, which can have different forms such as written language and oral language. Health education materials are communication using written language. It belongs to verbal communication, so the correct answer to this question is E.

4. Which of the following does not belong to nursing diagnosis (A)

A. Potential complications: bleeding B. Hyperthermia: related to lung infection C. Risk of injury: related to dizziness D. Constipation: related to eating less crude fiber food E. Lack of knowledge: lack of coronary heart disease at home Knowledge of self-care

Analysis: "Potential complications: bleeding" is a cooperative problem or potential complication. It should be a problem solved by doctors and nurses cooperatively. It does not belong to the category of problems that nurses can solve independently. Therefore it is not a nursing diagnosis. The three options B, D, and E belong to existing nursing diagnoses, and C belongs to potential nursing diagnoses.

5. The reasonable ward environment is (A)

A. The room temperature of the baby room should be 22-24℃ B. The indoor relative humidity should be 30-40 C. Tetanus For patients, the indoor light should be bright. D. The delivery room should be kept warm and windows should not be opened. E. For patients with tracheostomy, the indoor relative humidity should be 40. Analysis: Generally, the temperature in the ward should be 18-22°C. The room temperature in the baby room should be slightly higher, preferably 22-24°C; the relative humidity in the ward is 50-60. Low humidity is not good for patients with tracheostomy. Tetanus patients should avoid various stimuli, such as light, sound, etc., to avoid causing convulsions in the patient, so the light should be dark. The delivery room should be properly ventilated with windows open to keep the air fresh.

6. After the comatose patient is sent to the ward from the emergency room, the nurse on duty should first (B)

A. fill in various cards B, notify the doctor, cooperate with the rescue, and measure vital signs C. Ask about the medical history and assess the course of the disease D. Notify the nutrition room and prepare meals E. Introduce the hospital environment

Analysis: The condition of critically ill patients changes rapidly and they should be closely monitored and prepared to cooperate with rescue operations.

7. The order in which the nurse helps the patient move to the flat car is (D)

A. Upper body, lower body, buttocks B. Buttocks, upper body, lower body C. Buttocks, lower limbs, upper body D , upper body, buttocks, lower body E, lower limbs, buttocks, upper body

Analysis: Using the moving sequence of upper body, buttocks, and lower body is conducive to patient safety and protection.

8. The purpose of placing patients in the supine position without pillows under general anesthesia is (C)

A. To facilitate venous return B. To prevent reduction of intracranial pressure C. To prevent vomiting Materials flow into the trachea D, reduce wound pain E, reduce local bleeding

Analysis: Patients may vomit after general anesthesia. The supine position with pillow removal can make the glottis higher than the esophageal entrance to prevent vomitus from flowing into the trachea. asphyxia.

9. Among the following options, the items that should be observed that are not restraint belts are (E)

A. Whether the padding is well padded B. Whether the restraint belt is secure C. Whether the body position is comfortable D , Local skin color and temperature E. Whether the mind is clear

Analysis: Use padding to keep the restrained limb in a functional position, which can reduce the discomfort caused by restraint to the patient. Checking that restraint straps are secure can increase safety. Observing the color and temperature of the local skin can provide a timely understanding of the blood circulation of the patient's restrained area. Avoid local blood circulation disorders caused by restraints.

10. Which of the following does not belong to the thermal disinfection and sterilization method (D)

A. Pressure steam sterilization method B. Combustion method C. Boiling method D. Ultraviolet lamp disinfection Method E, dry roasting method

Analysis: The five options all belong to physical disinfection and sterilization methods, and the thermal disinfection and sterilization method belongs to the first category of physical disinfection and sterilization methods, A, B, C, E mainly achieves the sterilization effect through the action of heat, while the ultraviolet lamp disinfection method belongs to the light disinfection method among physical methods, and mainly relies on the action of ultraviolet light itself to achieve the disinfection and sterilization effect.

11. The time required to achieve the purpose of disinfection by sunlight exposure is (C)

A, 2h B, 4h C, 6h D, 8h E, 10h

Analysis: Sunlight exposure generally takes 6 hours to achieve the disinfection effect. If the time is too short, the disinfection effect will not be achieved, and if the time is too long, it is unnecessary.

12. The highly efficient disinfectant that can be used to soak metal instruments is (B)

A, 0.2 peracetic acid B, 25 glutaraldehyde C, 0.5 iodophor D, 3 Bleaching solution E, 70 ethanol

Analysis: Glutaraldehyde is a highly efficient disinfectant and can be used to disinfect metal instruments. Option A, peracetic acid, is also a high-efficiency disinfectant, but it is corrosive to metals; options C and E are both medium-efficiency disinfectants; option D is corrosive and bleaching to metals, and is not suitable for soaking metal instruments. .

13. The correct way to use sterile forceps is (B)

A. It can pick up any sterile items. B. It should be used every time in the operating room and outpatient dressing room. Disinfect once a day C. Use sterile forceps to pick up objects from a distance and return quickly D. The forceps end does not need to be closed when picking up sterile objects E. The forceps end should be upward and do not cross the sterile area

Analysis: Option B complies with the principle of aseptic operation. Departments such as operating rooms and outpatient dressing rooms that frequently use sterile forceps should be disinfected and sterilized once a day. The reason why option A is wrong is that sterile forceps cannot pick up moist sterile items such as oil gauze or alcohol cotton balls. The reason why option C is wrong is because you should bring a foam tong tube with you when picking up items from a distant place.

Options D and E do not meet the basic requirements for aseptic operation. When removing and placing sterile forceps, the ends of the forceps should be closed and the ends of the forceps must be kept downward during use.

14. The semi-polluted area in the infectious disease ward is (B)

A. Warehouse B. Ward waiter C. Doctor’s duty room D. Pantry E. Changing Room

Analysis: According to the isolation system, the isolation area can be divided into clean area, semi-insult area and insult area. Clean areas refer to areas that are not contaminated by pathogenic microorganisms. For example, options A, C, D, and E all belong to clean areas; semi-contaminated areas refer to all areas that may be contaminated by pathogenic microorganisms. For example, answer B, the ward corridor may be polluted by pathogenic microorganisms. There are patients moving around; contaminated areas refer to areas that are in contact with patients and contaminated by pathogenic microorganisms, such as wards, toilets, etc.

15. When providing oral care to a comatose patient, the following is correct (C)

A. Assist the patient to rinse his mouth. B. Wipe the mouth and teeth from the inside out. Face C. Clamp the cotton ball with vascular forceps. The cotton ball should be dry and wet. D. When using an opener, put it in from the front teeth. E. The movable dentures can be soaked in 70℃ water for later use

16. The following postures The incorrect relationship with the common site of bedsores is (C)

A. Supine position - sacrococcygeal region B. Side position - hip position C. Prone position - medial malleolus D. Sitting position - ischial tubercle E. Lying on the side - acromion

Analysis: Option C is incorrect. When lying on the side, the common areas are the forehead, mandible, acromion, anterior superior iliac spine, front of the knee, and toes. etc., the medial malleolus is a common site when lying on the side. The remaining options are correct.

17. The correct option for the following description of body temperature is (E)

A. If you work at night for a long time, your body temperature is usually the highest between 2-8pm within 24 hours. B. The body temperature of the elderly has a downward trend, and the body temperature of the elderly will be lower. C. The body temperature of women decreases slightly during the premenstrual period. D. The body temperature of infants and young children is relatively stable. E. The body temperature of women is slightly higher than that of men.

Analysis : Option E is correct. Option A is correct. If you work at night for a long time, your body temperature will increase at night and your body temperature will drop during the day. The body temperature is usually the highest in the early morning. Option B is wrong. The body temperature of the elderly has a downward trend due to their low metabolic rate, but the body temperature of the elderly will increase by about 0.6°C. Option B C is incorrect. A woman's body temperature rises slightly between ovulation and premenstruation. Option D is incorrect. Infants and young children have unstable body temperatures due to imperfect body temperature regulation.

18. For patients with short pulse, the correct way to measure heart rate and pulse rate is (C)

A. Measure the heart rate first, then the pulse rate B. Measure the pulse first rate, then measure the heart rate C. One person measures the heart rate, and the other person measures the pulse rate, and measures for 1 minute at the same time D. One person measures the heart rate and pulse rate, and the other person reports to the doctor E. One person gives the command, and the other person measures the heart rate and pulse rate

Analysis: Option C is correct. Two nurses measure the heart rate and pulse rate respectively. The nurse who measures the heart rate times the time. They measure for 1 minute at the same time.

19. The respiratory symptoms of patients with metabolic acidosis are (A)

A. Deep, long and regular breathing B. Superficial breathing C. Cicada-like breathing D. Breathing and Apnea appears alternately E, and both inhalation and exhalation feel laborious

Analysis: Option A is correct. Patients with metabolic acidosis take deep, long and regular breaths; Option B is seen in patients who are dying. , is a kind of shallow and irregular breathing, sometimes sighing; option D is also called intermittent breathing, which is common in patients with intracranial lesions or respiratory center failure; option E is mixed dyspnea, which is common in lung infections Waiting for patients.

20. When inserting a gastric tube into a comatose patient, when the gastric tube is inserted into the cuff, the patient’s head should be held up. The purpose is (D)

A. Reduce the patient's pain B. Avoid damage to the esophageal mucosa C. Avoid the patient's nausea D. Increase the curvature of the throat passage E. Relax the throat muscles for easier insertion

Analysis: Due to the loss of swallowing and coughing reflexes in comatose patients , this can increase the curvature of the pharyngeal passage from the anatomical structure, facilitate the sliding of the gastric tube along the posterior wall, avoid accidentally entering the trachea, and thus improve the success rate of intubation.

21. Patients with hepatic coma should be given (B)

A. Low-salt diet B. Low-protein diet C. High-calorie diet D. No-salt and low-sodium diet E. Low-fat diet Diet

Analysis: Reducing the protein in the patient's diet can reduce the ammonia produced after protein digestion and absorption, and prevent the patient from being unable to excrete ammonia in the body and aggravating the condition.

22. The following patients who can use hot water for sitz bath are (B)

A. Patients with vaginal bleeding B. Patients with perineal congestion C. Patients with acute pelvic inflammatory disease D. 8 pregnant women Pregnant women E, patients with heavy menstruation

Analysis: Hot water baths are often used for postoperative, perineal and anal diseases to eliminate or reduce congestion, inflammation, edema and pain. Female patients should not take sitz baths during menstruation, late pregnancy, within 2 weeks after delivery, vaginal bleeding and acute pelvic inflammation to avoid infection.

23. The mechanism of cold therapy to control the spread of inflammation is: (B)

A. Enhance the phagocytic function of white blood cells B. Reduce the vitality of bacteria C. Enhance local immune function D. Reduce Nerve excitability E, dissolve necrotic tissue

Analysis: Cold therapy can constrict local capillaries, slow down blood flow, reduce cell metabolism and microbial activity, thereby limiting the spread of inflammation.

24. Oligouria refers to the urine output in 24 hours is less than, (D)

A. 50ml B. 100ml C. 200ml D. 400ml E. 1000ml

Analysis: Oliguria refers to a 24-hour urine output of less than 400 ml or an hourly urine output of less than 17 ml. If the urine output in 24 hours is less than 100 ml, it is anuria.

25. Urine smelling like rotten apples is seen in: (E)

A. Hepatic coma B. Urinary tract infection C. Obstructive cholangitis D. Organophosphorus pesticide poisoning E. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Analysis: In diabetic ketoacidosis, the urine has a rotten apple-like smell because the urine contains acetone.

26. The enema solution prohibited for patients with hepatic coma is: (B)

A. Isotonic saline B. Soapy water C. Normal saline D. Sodium bicarbonate solution E. Warm Boiling water

Analysis: Patients with hepatic coma are prohibited from enema with soapy water to reduce the production and absorption of ammonia.

27. Which of the following descriptions of abnormal stool characteristics is incorrect: (B)

A. When upper gastrointestinal bleeding occurs, tarry stools occur; B. When there is complete bile duct obstruction The stool is soy sauce color C. The stool of patients with indigestion has a sour smell D. The stool of patients with intussusception has jam-like stool E. The stool of patients with dysentery has mucus and bloody stool

Analysis: When upper gastrointestinal bleeding occurs, the stool becomes tarry. ; When there is complete bile duct obstruction, the feces will be clay-colored; the feces will be sour and smelly, which is seen in indigestion; jam-like stools will be seen in amoebic dysentery or intussusception; mucus and blood in the stools will be seen in people with dysentery.

28. The patients who are not suitable for large-volume non-retention enemas are: (C)

A. Patients before colonoscopy B. Patients before abdominal surgery C. Patients with acute abdomen D. Patients with high fever E. People with habitual constipation

Analysis: The purpose of large-scale no-retention enemas is to relieve constipation; prepare for surgery, examination or delivery; and cool down patients with high fever. Therefore, answers A, B, D, and E are all indications for large-scale non-retention enemas. Patients with acute abdomen, gastrointestinal bleeding, pregnancy, and severe cardiovascular disease are contraindicated in taking large amounts of non-retention enemas.

29. Regarding the principles of drug storage, which of the following statements is correct: (D)

A. The medicine cabinet should be placed in a place exposed to sunlight to ensure bright light. B. The medicine cabinet should be placed in a place exposed to sunlight to ensure bright light. The cabinet should be transparent and kept clean. C. The name of the drug should be written in Chinese, indicating the concentration and dosage, and the writing should be clear. D. Poisons and anesthetics should be locked and kept, managed by dedicated personnel, and handed over. E. Drugs with ambiguous bottle labels need to be carefully checked

Analysis: Medicine cabinets should be protected from direct sunlight and should not be transparent to prevent medicines from deteriorating when exposed to light; medicine names should be in Chinese and English; medicines with ambiguous labels should not be used.

30. One of the following methods of taking medicine is incorrect: (A)

A. Take digestive medicine before meals B. Do not drink tea when taking iron supplements C. Drink more water after taking the diaphoretic medicine. D. When taking acids, avoid contact with teeth. E. When taking medicine for nasogastric feeding patients, the medicine should be poured through the stomach tube and rinsed with warm water after filling.

Analysis: Digestive aids should be used Take it after meals to mix the medicine and food evenly and facilitate food digestion.

31. When taking the following drugs, the pulse or heart rate needs to be measured routinely: (B)

A. Barbiturate sodium, diazepam B, digitalis, quinidine C , Propranolol, Huisulin D, Prednisone, E, Promethazine, Chlorpromazine

Analysis: When taking cardiac glycosides, you should first measure the pulse rate (heart rate) and rhythm, such as pulse If the rate is lower than 60 times/min or the rhythm is abnormal, you should stop taking it and report to your doctor.

32. The following are not the working characteristics of ultrasonic atomizer: (E)

A. The droplets are small and uniform, with a diameter of less than 5 μm. B. The medicinal liquid can be absorbed by breathing. Inhale to the terminal bronchoalveoli C. The atomized liquid is warm and comfortable D. The amount of mist can be adjusted E. The amount of oxygen used is small, saving resources

Analysis: Ultrasonic atomizer does not require oxygen when working .

33. For patients who have long-term intramuscular injections, nurses should pay special attention before injection. (A)

A. Assess the patient’s local tissue status B. Do not penetrate all the needle stems C. Ask the patient if he has any history of allergies. D. Disinfect the patient’s local skin carefully. E. Make the patient’s position comfortable. Analysis: For patients who have received intramuscular injections for a long time, induration will appear in the local tissue and affect the absorption of the drug, so in Special care is required during assessment and attention should be paid to changing injection sites during injection.

34. Which of the following statements about infusion is incorrect: (D)

A. For those who need long-term infusion, usually start from the distal vein B. When a large amount of infusion is needed, usually Choose a larger vein C. Adjust the slower speed when infusing dopamine D. When taking turns for 24 consecutive hours, the infusion tube should be replaced every 12 hours E. When puncturing and extubating the external jugular vein, pressurize the puncture point for several minutes to avoid air entry

Analysis: For 24 hours of continuous infusion, the infusion tube should be replaced every 24 hours, so the statement in option D is incorrect, and the other options are correct.

35. 1500ml of liquid should be infused starting at 8:30 in the morning. The adjusted number of drops is about 75 drops/minute. The time to complete the infusion is: (C) A. 12:30 B. 1 p.m. Point C, 1:30 pm D, 2 pm E, 3 pm

Analysis: Calculation formula: total amount (ml) × 15 (drops/ml) ÷ dripping speed (drops/minute) =1500×15÷75=300min, so it takes 5 hours to infuse all the fluids. I started losing at 8 a.m. and finished at 1:30 p.m.

36. In the event of acute pulmonary edema, the concentration of alcohol in the humidification bottle is: (B)

A, 10-20 B, 20-30 C, 30-50 D, 50-70 E, 70-90

Analysis: When patients with acute pulmonary edema inhale oxygen, the concentration of alcohol in the humidification bottle is 20-30.

37. Fever caused by infusion Common causes of reactions include: (E)

A. Too much liquid is given. B. The pressure of the infusion is too high. C. The infusion time is too long. D. Allergenic substances are given. E. Heat is given. Analysis: The occurrence of fever reaction is mainly due to the input of pyrogenic substances, such as pyrogens, dead bacteria, etc. It can also be caused by impure drug ingredients and contamination of infusion equipment. It has no direct relationship with the infusion time, infusion volume, and infusion pressure. The input of allergenic substances is the direct cause of allergic reactions.

38. The most serious blood transfusion reaction is: (C)

A. Air embolism B. Anaphylaxis C. Hemolytic reaction D. Circulatory overload E. Sodium citrate Poisoning

Analysis: Hemolytic reaction is the most serious reaction in a series of blood transfusion reactions, with acute renal failure and rapid death in the later stages.

39. Stocked blood can be stored in a refrigerator at 4°C. (B)

A. 1-2 weeks B. 2-3 weeks C. 3-5 weeks D. 5-6 weeks E, 7-8 weeks

Analysis: Stock blood can generally be stored in a refrigerator at 1-6°C for 2-3 weeks.

40. Regarding the preparations before blood transfusion, which of the following descriptions is wrong: (B)

A. It is forbidden to collect blood specimens from two people at the same time. B. Two people must check. Strictly three Check seven pairs C. Banked blood with unclear boundaries cannot be used D. Banked blood should be left at room temperature for 20 minutes before transfusion E. Before transfusion, shake the plasma gently with a rotating motion

Analysis: The nurse is Before blood collection and blood transfusion, two people should strictly check three or eight pairs: Do not heat the banked blood after taking it out to avoid coagulation and denaturation of plasma proteins. It can be left at room temperature for 15-20 minutes before transfusion. If it cannot be transfused within 30 minutes, it should be refrigerated. (2-4℃); Do not shake vigorously before transfusion, or shake it upside down to avoid damaging red blood cells. You can rotate and shake gently; in normal bank blood, the upper layer of plasma is yellow and the lower layer of blood cells is red, and the boundary between the two is clear. Unclear boundaries indicate that the blood has deteriorated and cannot be transfused; collecting blood samples from two people at the same time can easily cause confusion.

41. When should blood samples for biochemical tests be collected? (A)

A. Early in the morning on an empty stomach B. Half an hour before meals C. Half an hour after meals D. Before going to bed E. No time limit

Analysis: Biochemical specimens should be collected on an empty stomach in the early morning to avoid eating that may affect the test results.

42. What is a state of disordered activity of high-level nerve center functions, mainly increased excitability? (D)

A. Lethargy B. Confusion C. Drowsiness D. Delirium E. Coma

Analysis: Disorder of consciousness is a mental state in which the functional activity of the higher-level nerve centers of the brain is disordered and the individual lacks normal response to external environmental stimuli. Consciousness disorders can generally be divided into drowsiness, confusion, lethargy, and coma, which are clinical manifestations of brain function suppression. At the same time, disorders of consciousness may also present clinical manifestations of enhanced response to stimulation, such as hallucinations, auditory hallucinations, restlessness, etc., which is delirium.

43. When giving indications for oxygen to patients, the arterial blood oxygen partial pressure should generally be lower than, (B)

A, 7.6kpa B, 6.6kpa C, 5.6kPa D, 4.6kPa E, 3.6kPa

Analysis: The oxygen consumption of the brain accounts for 1/5 of the oxygen consumption of the whole body. The tolerance of brain tissue to hypoxia is very poor. Under normal circumstances, the oxygen content of arterial blood When the pressure is 10.6-13.3kPa, symptoms of the central nervous system appear earliest during hypoxia. Patients with PaO2lt; 6.6kPa must be given oxygen therapy.

44. The correct operation of the nasal cannula oxygen supply method is: (C)

A. Clean the patient’s nostrils with a dry cotton swab before giving oxygen. B. The length of the catheter insertion is from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. 1/2 C. When giving oxygen, adjust the oxygen flow and then insert the nasal cannula. D. When stopping oxygen giving, the oxygen switch should be turned off first. E. The distance between the oxygen cylinder and the heater should be 0.5 meters.

Analysis: Oxygen giving When using a wet cotton swab, clean the nostrils, connect the nasal cannula, open the flow adjustment valve, and make sure that the oxygen flows smoothly, adjust the required oxygen flow, dip the nasal cannula in water, insert it from one side of the nasal cavity from the tip of the nose to 2/3 of the length of the earlobe, and stop When using oxygen, first pull out the nasal cannula, then turn off the main switch, and then turn off the flow regulating valve when there is no air left. When using oxygen, four precautions should be taken. The oxygen tank should be at least 5 meters away from the stove and 1 meter away from the heater.

45. The following are not in compliance with the nursing operations of sputum suction: (E)

A. Check whether the catheter is unobstructed before intubation B. Patients with severe hypoxia should be treated before suctioning Increase the oxygen flow C. The suction time should not exceed 15 seconds each time D. When the sputum is thick, instill a small amount of normal saline to dilute it E. Change the suction catheter 1-2 times a day

Analysis: Treatment The suction materials in the tray should be replaced 1-2 times a day, and the suction catheter should be replaced after each use.

46. During gastric lavage, the amount of gastric lavage solution injected at one time should not exceed, (E)

A, 100ml B, 200ml C, 300ml D, 400ml E, 500ml

Analysis: The gastric lavage solution is infused at a flow rate of 300-500 ml at a time. If it is too much, the gastric volume will increase, which can increase intragastric pressure, lead to acute gastric dilation, stimulate vagus nerve excitement, and cause reflex cardiac arrest. At the same time, poisons are quickly discharged into the intestines, increasing the amount of poisons absorbed. In addition, too much can also cause fluid reflux, leading to choking, aspiration or suffocation.

47. The first nursing measure before implementing artificial respiration is: (C)

A. Place the patient in a place with fresh air B. Closely observe the rise and fall of the patient's chest C. Clear the secretions and vomitus in the mouth D. Remove the movable dentures and open the mouth with an opener E. Place the patient in a side-lying position and loosen the collar

Analysis: Before performing artificial respiration, lay the patient on his back , tilt the head to one side to remove secretions and vomitus from the mouth and nose to prevent foreign matter from blocking the respiratory tract.

48. The clinical manifestations of dying patients are: (D)

A. Stop breathing B. Heartbeat stops C. Loss of reflex reactions D. Respiratory failure E. Mydriasis

Analysis: In dying patients, the functions above the brainstem of the central nervous system are in a state of suppression, and they often suffer from circulatory and respiratory failure. It manifests as shortness of breath and difficulty in breathing, Chen Shi's breathing, irregular, fast and weak pulse, and low or undetectable blood pressure.

49. The long-term medical advice is: (D)

A. First-level care B. X-ray film C. Ophthalmology consultation D. Oxygen inhalation prn E. After meal Blood sugar

Analysis: Option A is a long-term medical order, that is, from the time the doctor writes the order until the doctor stops the order; Option B is a temporary medical order, that is, it is valid within 24 hours and is generally only executed once. Some temporary medical orders have a limited execution time, such as consultations, surgical X-rays, etc., and some need to be executed immediately, such as st; option C is also a temporary medical order; option D is a long-term standby medical order, so option D is correct; option E is Temporary medical orders.

50. Patients with acute large-area myocardial infarction should be given: (A)

A. Special careB. First-level careC. Secondary careD. Tertiary careE. Home care

Analysis: Patients with acute large-area myocardial infarction are in critical condition and need to be observed at any time for rescue, so option A is correct; option B is suitable for patients whose condition is critical and requires absolute bed rest; option C is suitable for Patients with serious conditions who cannot take care of themselves, such as those with stable conditions after surgery, the elderly and infirm, and those with chronic diseases who are not suitable for activities; Option D is suitable for patients with mild symptoms who can basically take care of themselves, such as general chronic diseases, disease recovery period, and before surgery Patients in the preparation stage; Option E is not a member of the hospital's graded care and is mainly suitable for the recovery period when patients return home. It is obviously not suitable for patients with acute large-area myocardial infarction.