Joke Collection Website - Talk about mood - What is 1+ 1? Explain your reasons?
What is 1+ 1? Explain your reasons?
1, Boolean algebra. 1+ 1= 1;
2, in binary. 1+ 1= 10;
3. Lickitung replied. For example, 1 plus 1 equals love;
4. As a representative. Such as Goldbach conjecture;
5. When playing word games. For example, 1 clip 1, the answer is zero;
6. When turning sharply. For example, 1 plus 1, the answer is11;
7. The unit is different. For example, 1 hour plus 1 minute equals 6 1 minute;
8. When changing units. For example, 1 hand plus 1 hand equals 1 hand;
9. When it is really needed. For example, a foot of cloth plus a catty of rice equals a bag of rice;
10, intelligence test. For example, a drop of water plus a drop of water equals a drop of water;
1 1, under special circumstances. For example, a man plus a pregnant woman equals three people;
12, funny answer. For example, a cat plus a mouse equals a complete cat;
13, doing crossword puzzles. If you add 1, the answer is ten; One plus one, the answers are Wang, Feng, 30, etc. One plus one equals, and the answers are Tian, you, A, Shen, etc.
14、……
1+ 1 equal to 1+ 1=, what are the sufficient reasons?
This is an open question.
Look at the unit, 1 0+ 1 0=2 0, 1+1 =2, 1 pair =3,1pair +65438+. 1 day+1 week =8 days, 1 finger+1 hand = 1 finger,1clicks+1 finger, ...
When the units are unified, people agree that: 1+ 1=2.
It is also possible that =7, = 1 1, =T, = 2, = 10, = Kay, = what, = Ren, = L, = Qi, = 14, =4 1.
In daily life, 1 drip+1 drip, 1 pile soil+1 pile soil, 1 pile soil+/bucket water = 1 pile mud.
In logical operation, 1+ 1= 1.
In binary, 1+ 1= 10.
Goldbach conjecture: Every even number not less than 6 is the sum of two odd prime numbers, that is, "1+ 1=2".
……
There are many answers.
1+ 1 equals several reasons equals two, and this one doesn't need reasons.
What is 1+ 1? Ask for detailed reasons. 1+ 1
(Goldbach conjecture)
edit
It is a conjecture put forward by the German mathematician Goldbach (Goldbach conjecture).
Any even number ≥6 can be expressed as the sum of two odd prime numbers; Any odd number ≥9 can be expressed as the sum of no more than three odd prime numbers.
(a) Any even number ≥6 can be expressed as the sum of two odd prime numbers.
(b) Any odd number ≥9 can be expressed as the sum of no more than three odd prime numbers.
This is the famous Goldbach conjecture. In his reply to him on June 30th, X year, Euler said that he believed this conjecture was correct, but he could not prove it. Describing such a simple problem, even a top mathematician like Euler can't prove it. This conjecture has attracted the attention of many mathematicians. Since Goldbach put forward this conjecture, many mathematicians have been trying to conquer it, but they have not succeeded. Of course, some people have done some specific verification work, such as: 6 = 3+3, 8 = 3+5, 10 = 5+5 = 3+7, 12 = 5+7,14 = 7+7 = 3+/kloc. Someone checked the even numbers within the 8th power of 33× 10 and greater than 6, and Goldbach conjecture (a) was established. But strict mathematical proof requires the efforts of mathematicians.
Since then, this famous mathematical problem has attracted the attention of thousands of mathematicians all over the world. 200 years have passed and no one has proved it. Goldbach conjecture has therefore become an unattainable "pearl" in the crown of mathematics. People's enthusiasm for Goldbach conjecture lasted for more than 200 years. Many mathematicians in the world have racked their brains and still can't figure it out.
1+ 1=, explain the reason 2 skynet.
What is 1+ 1? The reason is 1+ 1 If it is a standard question;
Equal to 2;
If it is a brain teaser, it depends on the meaning of the questioner;
Others have some unusual answers;
For example:
Logically,1+1=1;
In binary, 1+ 1= 10.
1+ 1 What can be equal to except two? Why? Equal to 1, because a flock of sheep plus a flock of sheep equals a large flock of sheep.
Give the reason that 1+ 1= 1, 1+ 1=3 or1= n, so1+/kloc-0.
A woman and a man form a family and give birth to a child, so 1+ 1=3.
Because 1+ 1=2.
So 1+ 1 has no fixed answer. In a sense,1+1= n.
That's my understanding.
Guess A(A+ 1)(A+2) (a+3)+1= (a 2+3a+1) 2, and explain your reason a (a+1) (a+2).
=(a^2+3a)(a+ 1)(a+2)+ 1
=(a^2+3a)(a^2+3a+2)+ 1
=(a^2+3a+ 1- 1)(a^2+3a+ 1+ 1)+ 1
=(a^2+3a+ 1)^2- 1+ 1
=(a^2+3a+ 1)^2
Get the results!
As shown in the figure, AD is parallel to BE, and the angle 1 is equal to the angle 2. Please explain why angle A equals angle E:
∫≈ 1 =∠2 (known)
∴DE‖AC (internal dislocation angles are equal and two straight lines are parallel)
∴∠E=∠3 (two straight lines are parallel and the internal dislocation angles are equal)
∫DA‖BE (known)
∴∠ 3 =∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠∠
∴∠a =∞∠e (equivalent substitution)
- Previous article:"Mouth in try to be brave, in surrender. Not that strong. Actually, we are all faking it.
- Next article:Don't blame me. Tell me.
- Related articles
- A greeting card for the bridesmaid.
- After the death of her sister, her sister chose to reorganize her family with her brother-in-law. What do you think of this kind of marriage?
- Tell me about the copywriter who made his own clay pot rice.
- How to send a circle of friends to stimulate your predecessor?
- A collection of sentences describing birds
- Tell me about your feelings after remarriage.
- How to send a circle of friends in a four-piece suit in winter?
- Say a sentence about describing fear.
- Good morning, copywriter in a bad mood.
- What is the feeling of sharing food?